NEET 2023 Question Paper with Answer Key

Leave a Comment / Question Papers, NEET Question Papers / By

Presenting the NEET 2023 Question Paper with answer keys of EACH QUESTIONS.

Biology Section – NEET 2023 Questions (Code G – 6)

Q.100 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion: The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
Reason: Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. A is not correct but R is correct.
  2. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  3. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  4. A is correct but R is not correct.

Correct option: Option 2, 3 (Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A, Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.)

NEET 2023 Question Paper with Answer Key

Q.102 Cellulose does not form blue colour with Iodine because

  1. It breaks down when iodine react with it.
  2. It is a disaccharide.
  3. It is a helical molecule.
  4. It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules.

Correct option: Option 4 (It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules.)

Q. 103 Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis?

  1. copper
  2. manganese
  3. molybdenum
  4. magnesium

Correct option: Option 2 (manganese)

Q. 104 Expressed sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to

  1. Certain important expressed genes.
  2. All genes that are expressed as RNA.
  3. All genes that are expressed as proteins.
  4. All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.

Correct option: Option 2 (All genes that are expressed as RNA.)

Q.105 The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of:

  1. Kilobase
  2. Dobson units
  3. Decibal
  4. Decameter

Correct option: Option 2 (Dobson units)

Q.106 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion: ACATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.

Reason: First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6- phosphate and second ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6- phosphate inot fructose-1-6-diphosphate.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A is false but R is true.
  2. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  3. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  4. A is true but R is false.

Correct option: Option 2 (Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.)

Q. 107 Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show

  1. Bright orange colour
  2. Bright red colour
  3. Bright blue colour
  4. Bright yellow colour

Correct option: Option 2 (Bright orange colour)

Q. 108 Among “The Evil Quartet’, which one is considered the most important cause driving extinction of species?

  1. Co-extinctions
  2. Habitat loss and fragmentation
  3. Over exploitation for economic gain
  4. Alien species invasions

Correct option: Option 2 (Habitat loss and fragmentation)

Q. 109 Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?

  1. Telophase
  2. Metaphase I
  3. Metaphase II
  4. Anaphase II

Correct option: Option 4 (Anaphase II)

Q. 110 Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?

1. 2,4-D
2. GA3
3. Kinetin
4. Ethylene

Correct option: Option 4 (Ethylene)

Q. 111 Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by

1. Henking
2. Thomas Hunt Morgan
3. Sutton and Boveri
4. Alfred Sturtevant

Correct option: Option 4 (Alfred Sturtevant)

Q. 112 How many ATP and NADPH₂ are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during Calvin cycle?

1. 18 ATP and 16 NADPH2
2. 12 ATP and 12 NADPH2
3. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2
4. 12 ATP and 16 NADPH2

Correct option: Option 3 (Alfred Sturtevant)

Q. 113 What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
1. Transcription of only snRNAS
2. Transcription of rRNAs (28 S, 18S and 5.8S)
3. Transcription of tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNA
4. Transcription of precursor of mRNA

Correct option: Option 3 (Transcription of tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNA)

Q. 114 Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.

1. Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers
2. Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers
3. Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens
4. Monoadelphous and Monothecous anthers

Correct option: Option 2 (Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers)

Q. 115 The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in meiosis?

1. Diakinesis
2. Zygotene
3. Pachytene
4. Diplotene

Correct option: Option 3 (Pachytene)

Q. 116 In the equation
GPP-R = NPP
GPP is Gross Primary Productivity
NPP is Net Primary Productivity
R here is _____.

1. Reproductive allocation
2. Photosynthetically active radiation
3. Respiratory quotient
4. Respiratory loss

Correct option: Option 4 (Respiratory loss)

Q. 117 The reaction centre is PS II has an absorption maxima at

1. 780 nm
2. 680 nm
3. 700 nm
4. 660 nm

Correct option: Option 2 (680 nm)

Q. 118 Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by

1. Wilkins and Franklin
2. Frederick Griffith
3. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
4. Avery, Macleoid and McCarthy

Correct option: Option 3 (Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase)

Q. 119 Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps in hastening the maturity period, that leads to early seed production?

1. Abscisic Acid
2. Indole-3-butyric Acid
3. Gibberellic Acid
4. Zeatin

Correct option: Option 3 (Gibberellic Acid)

Q. 120 What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?

1. To protect seeds
2. To attract insects
3. To trap pollen grains
4. To disperse pollen grains

Correct option: Option 3 (To trap pollen grains)

Q. 121 During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out

1. Polysaccharides
2. RNA
3. DNA
4. Histones

Correct option: Option 3 (DNA)

Q. 122 In angiosperms, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially are:

1. Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei
2. Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and zygote
3. Antipodals, synergids, and primary endosperm nucleus
4. Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus

Correct option: Option 4 (Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus)

Q.123 Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in:

1. Wind pollinated plants
2. Insect pollinated plants
3. Bird pollinated plants
4. Bat pollinated plants

Correct option: Option 2 (Insect pollinated plants)

Q. In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as:

1. Senescence
2. Differentiation
3. Dedifferentiation
4. Development

Correct option: Option 3 (Dedifferentiation)

Q. 125 Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The forces generated by transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130 meters height.
Statement II: Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by evaporative cooling.
In the light of the above statements from the options given below:

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect:

Q. 141. Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence.

1. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell
2. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme.
3. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
4. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, D, A, C
2. B, C, D, A
3. C, A, B, D
4. C, B, D, A

Correct option: Option 4 (C, B, D, A)

Q 142. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct

1. The amount of some toxic substances of industrial waste water increases in the organisms at successive trophic levels.
2. The micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter in a sewage polluted water body consume a lot of oxygen causing the death of aquatic organisms.
3. Algal blooms caused by excess of organic matter in water improve water quality and promote fisheries.
4. Water hyacinth grows abundantly in eutrophic water bodies and leads to an imbalance in the ecosystem dynamics of the water body.

Correct option: Option 1 (The amount of some toxic substances of industrial waste water increases in the organisms at successive trophic levels.)

Q 143. Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter’s?

A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also expressed
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. E. Such individuals are sterile.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and E only
2. A and B only
3. C and D only
4. B and E only

Correct option: Option 4 (B and E only)

Q 144 Match List I with List II:

List I (interaction)List II (Species A and B)
A. MutualismI. +(A), O(B)
B. CommensalismII. -(A), O(B)
C. AmensalismIII. +(A), (B)
D. ParasitismIV +(A),+(B)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
2. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Correct option: Option 3 (A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III)

Q 145. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion: A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem.
Reason R: Internode of the shoot gests condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive nodes instead of leaves.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answ the options given below:

1. A is false but R is true
2. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
3. Both A and R are true but R is NO:T the correct explanation of A.
4. A is true but R is false.

Correct option: Either Option 2 or Option 3 (Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. or Both A and R are true but R is NO:T the correct explanation of A.)

Q 146. How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of?

1. 20
2. 80
3. 60
4. 40

Correct option: Option 2 (80)

Physics Section – NEET 2023 Questions (Code F1)

Q. 1. The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its own axis to the radius of gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is

1. 5:3
2. 2:5
3. 5:2
4. 3:5

Correct option: Option 4 (3:5)

Q. 2. The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons?

1. Both Na and K
2. K only
3. Na only
4. Cs only

Correct option: Option 4 (Cs only)

Q. 3. The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m–1)

1. 5.6 x 10-4 Joule
2. 3.01 x 10-4 Joule
3. 50.1 x 10-4 Joule
4. 30.16 x 10-4 Joule

Correct option: Option 2 (3.01 x 10-4 Joule)

Q. 4. Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from colour codes is (22000 ± 5%) Ω. The colour of third band must be

1. Green
2. Orange
3. Yellow
4. Red

Correct option: Option 2 (Orange)

Q. 5. In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1 µF and resistance R is 100 Ω. The frequency at which resonance occurs is

1. 15.9 kHz
2. 1.59 rad/s
3. 1.59 kHz
4. 15.9 rad/s

Correct option: Option 3 (1.59 kHz)

Q. 6. In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 × 1010 Hz and amplitude 48 V m–1. Then the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is (Speed of light in free space = 3 × 108 ms–1)

1. 1.6 × 10–8 T
2. 1.6 × 10–7 T
3. 1.6 × 10–6 T
4. 1.6 × 10–9 T

Correct option: Option 2 (1.6 × 10–7 T)

Q. 7. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Photovoltaic devices can convert optical radiation into electricity.
Statement II: Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Correct option: Option 4 (Both Statement I and Statement II are correct)

Q. 8. The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature and voltage
supply are

1. Personal errors
2. Least count errors
3. Random errors
4. Instrumental errors

Correct option: Option 3 (Random errors)

9. If ∮E.dS⋅ = 0 over a surface, then

1. The magnitude of electric field on the surface is constant
2. All the charges must necessarily be inside the surface
3. The electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform
4. The number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it

Correct option: Option 4 (The number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it)

10. If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of R is given by

    1. 50 Ω
    2. 100 Ω
    3. 400 Ω
    4. 200 Ω

    Correct option: Option 2 (100 Ω)

    Q. 11. An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due to decrease in its operating frequency

    1. Displacement current increases
    2. Displacement current decreases
    3. Capacitive reactance remains constant
    4. Capacitive reactance decreases

    Correct option: Option 2 (Displacement current decreases)

    Q. 12. The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an electron accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is proportional to

    1. \frac{1}{V}
    2. \frac{1}{\sqrt{V}}
    3. V^2
    4. \sqrt{V}

    Correct option: Option 1 (\frac{1}{V})

    Q. 13. The venturi-meter works on

    1. Bernoulli’s principle
    2. The principle of parallel axes
    3. The principle of perpendicular axes
    4. Huygens’s principle

    Correct option: Option 1 (Bernoulli’s principle)

    Q. 14. A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n junction diodes, a centre-tapped transformer, capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these components remove the ac ripple from the rectified output?

    1. p-n junction diodes
    2. Capacitor
    3. Load resistance
    4. A centre-tapped transformer

    Correct option: Option 2 (Capacitor)

    This question paper is live and is getting updated every single minute. So, please REFRESH this page to get more questions.

      AmiPori.in is one of the fastest websites on the Internet to publish the NEET 2023 question papers. The answer keys are
      According to some respected teachers, the botany paper was comparative easy.
      Students can visit NTA’s official website to get the latest update about the exam.

      Leave a Comment

      Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *